Says the headline in The Guardian. OK, that's mathematically incorrect - what they are talking about is £16 bn of allowable losses that ML have booked - rightly or wrongly - through its UK subsidiaries, so the value of the tax break is 28% of that, or £4.5 bn. However, the bones of the story appear to be correctly reported, as the FT says much the same.
As somebody who works in international tax, I can only begin to guess why ML booked its losses through the UK rather than claiming them in the US, but here's what I posted at everybody's favourite retired accountant:
OK. Being realistic and simplistic about this, ML have booked a load of losses in their UK subsidiary that didn’t really relate to UK business (I think that much is uncontentious).
But this is a US bank, so what they are really trying to do is avoid US taxes. So to make use of these losses for tax purposes, in future they will also have to book a load of PROFITS in the UK that don’t really belong in the UK. I can only assume that UK rules on carry forward of losses are more generous than US rules (or else they’d have left the losses to carry forward in the US).
So on a country basis, while the losses didn’t belong in the UK, neither will the profits. If anything, it’s the IRS who are being conned here, not HMRC. So for corporation tax, from HMRC point of view it’s nothing lost. BUT, to be able to use up those losses, ML need a presence here, so they will have more UK employees paying more UK PAYE, overall it is quite possible that HMRC comes out ahead on the deal.
With my professional hat on, it seems like a very high-risk strategy to me (and they ought to sack their advisors for letting this be splashed all over the papers). The strategy only works if the IRS allow ML to cheerfully transfer future US-source profits to the UK. Don't forget that the IRS make HMRC look positively gentlemanly - under transfer pricing rules, the IRS are almost certain to turn a blind eye to the fact that losses were transferred out of their jurisdiction, but will sing a different tune once ML start making profits again and try to shuffle those offshore.
So worst case, ML will pay tax on future profits in the US (because the IRS won't let them shift profits offshore) and in the UK (because HMRC might disallow the carried forward losses on the basis that they relate to a different trade or because of some cunning re-classification between trade losses and deficits on trading/non-trading loan relationships etc.)
Ah well.
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8 comments:
The big picture might be that ML are under-ordure and taking desperate gambles to escape.
Do you think Merrill will even be around a few years from now to create any business at all, much less taxable profits?
They are number two on my US-bank-going-bust-o-meter.
Nick
Nick, I wouldn't rush to buy ML shares, put it that way.
Who's Number One on your list?
Mark,
Can you get technical and explain how this is supposed to work? I can't get my head round it.
GS. It's to do with transfer pricing. If you buy TVs from China for £40 each, pay for shipping to the UK at £10 each and sell them for £100 in the UK you've made a UK taxable profit of £50.
Problem 1: transfer pricing
But what if you're a conglomerate and you own the factory in China, the ships registered in Cyprus and the retail shop in the UK? Somehow you have to apportion the overall income of £100. If you allocate £40 to China, £10 to Cyprus and £50 to the UK, then HMRC say that the £40 and £10 were overstated and actually you made £60 profit in the UK, Cyprus tax office says you undercharged for shipping and actually the shipping income is £15 and China tax office says that the wholesale price of the TVs is £50 per set, not £40.
So a conglomerate can, if it's unlucky end up paying tax on total profits greater than its actual profits.
Problem 2: allocating losses
It's even worse with losses. ML are a US based worldwide bank, clearly they have made losses, but if they raise the money in a UK subsidiary and lend it to a US subsidiary which then makes losses overall, where does the loss belong? In the UK or in the US?
Problem 3: tax relief for losses
The point of claiming a loss for tax purposes is that you can deduct them from future profits of the same trade; let us imagine GWS rents a gallery for £10,000 and in year one only sells £4,000 of paintings - that's a loss of £6,000 to carry forward.
In the next year, GWS pays rent of £10,000 and sells paintings worth £18,000 so makes a profit of £8,000 from the same trade. But she can deduct the £6,000 losses from year one, so in year two she pays tax on £2,000.
In other words, over the two years, GWS has paid rent of £20,000 and sold paintings worth £22,000 and has made an overall profit of £2,000. She pays tax on NIL in year one and tax on £2,000 in year two, so that is all fair enough.
Problem 4: change in nature of trade
Instead, let's assume that GWS decides that running a gallery is a mug's game, and turns her premises into a tea shop, and makes a profit in year two of £8,000. HMRC will say that this is a different, new trade, and the losses of £6,000 brought forward from the gallery are lost. In which case she pays tax on £8,000 in year two.
Problem 5: matching future profits with losses
Some countries restrict the amount of losses you can carry forward, the UK is relatively generous. So let us assume that ML in their infinite wisdom have decided that their best hope of getting relief for these losses is to book them in the UK rather than in the US. So they won't get relief for the losses in the US (having transferred them to the UK).
They will therefor only get tax relief for those losses if they can somehow channel at least $29bn of future profits through the UK.
Problem 6: Head I win, tails you lose
Let's assume, the ML group, by some miracle, makes $29 bn profit in the next year. If it transfers the profit to the UK, the US tax office (IRS) will cry foul and say that the profits arose in the US (see first example with China/Cyprus/UK) and that ML should pay US tax on them. ML can't claim UK losses brought forward in a UK subsidiary against US profits (those are just the rules).
And, worse, the UK tax office might say "Sure, you have losses brought forward from wholesale lending (to another group company), but these profits are from retail lending (to end borrowers) so actually, this is now a different trade (like when GWS stops selling paintings and starts selling tea and cakes) and ML's UK subsidiary can pay tax on $29 bn, thank you very much.
Summary:
Simple enough in theory, all highly complicated and nasty in practice. Of course the Holy Grail of tax advisors is to turn this on its head and to pay tax on less than the conglomerate/multi-national earns, but this is seldom achieved (and a moment for much back slapping when you ocasionally manage it).
Mark, your most recent comment is why I went into Audit instead of Tax. What a headache!
Number one on my list is still Lehman. I think Morgan Stanley is also far wobblier than acknowledged. There's still plenty of the IBs hiding their junk in level 3 and many of them have worse level 3 to equity ratios than the IBs currently making all the news. Last I saw Merril's level three were less than 100% of equity whereas Morgan Stanley and Goldman were both over 200%.
Nick
Mark,
Thanks for the comprehensive reply, it's very educational. I suppose if I had still been running my own business it would have cost me a fair bit to get this advice so if we ever meet a glass of you favourite tipple is on me.
As to the points you raise:
Problem 1. Having worked for an international consultancy I was aware of the problem for a service industry, as we worked for different offices, but hadn't considered these cases. I suppose that there is benchmark data which makes playing around with these sorts of costs difficult, but I get your point. For service industry the international norm seems to be 15% kept by the office that had the business with 85% going back to the home office.
Problem 2. Surely in this case it's a loan and the loss is still in the US with the UK office being a creditor? If the US office was to go bust then the loan is written off and becomes a loss could then be set off against tax, but that won't happen? (I assume that for the purposes of operating the business ML UK is a limited company registered in UK and similarly ML US is limited and registered in US.)
Problem 3/4. I would expect my high street accountant to advise me on this one, numpty that he is, but its well worth knowing. I suppose in this case it would become a Gallery with a tea shop and then morph in to a tea shop over time?
Problem 5. That's the bit I didn't follow in your original post, but now I get it. This must signal that they expect their UK operations to be profitable very quickly and that their US operation is probably in for a very rough ride, supporting Nick's view.
Problem 6. Now I see why you reckon its a risky strategy. Not least because politicians love tinkering with the rules.
On reflection, and being very cynical, perhaps the US operation is in even worse doo doo that they are letting on and they expect it to go bust. In which case this is is last desperate chance to help a part of the business that might survive the credit crunch.
GS, as to your comments on problem 2, quite how they turned a US loss into a UK loss is beyond my ken (there are infinite ways that it might or might not have been engineered, including your idea that UK co just writes off loan to US co - maybe it's as simple as that).
Apart from that, you are now up to speed on international tax and why galleries should serve tea!
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